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Do \(x^2+2mx+n=0\) có nghiệm \(\Rightarrow m^2-n\ge0\)
Xét pt: \(x^2+2\left(k+\dfrac{1}{k}\right)mx+n\left(k+\dfrac{1}{k}\right)^2=0\)
\(\Delta'=\left(k+\dfrac{1}{k}\right)^2m^2-n\left(k+\dfrac{1}{k}\right)^2=\left(k+\dfrac{1}{k}\right)^2\left(m^2-n\right)\ge0\) với mọi k
\(\Rightarrow\)Pt đã cho có nghiệm
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\(\frac{k\left(x+2\right)-3\left(k-1\right)}{x+1}=1\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(k-1\right)x=2-k\)
Với \(k=1\) thì phương trình vô nghiệm
Với \(k\ne1\)thì
\(x=\frac{2-k}{k-1}>0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow1< k< 2\)
Phương trình trên
<=> kx2 + (2 - 4k)x + (3k - 2) = 0
Ta có ∆' = (1 - 2k)2 - (3k - 2)k
= 1 - 4k + 4k2 - 3k2 + 2k
= k2 - 2k + 1 = (k - 1)2 \(\ge0\)
Vậy pt có nghiệm với mọi k
\(k\left(x-1\right)\left(x-3\right)+2\left(x-1\right)=0\)
\(\left(x-1\right)\left[k\left(x-3\right)+2\right]=0\Rightarrow\orbr{\begin{cases}x=1\\k\left(x-3\right)+2=0\end{cases}}\)vậy pt luôn có nghiệm x = 1 với mọi k.
\(\text{Δ}=\left(2k\right)^2-4\cdot\left(k^2-k\right)\)
\(=4k^2-4k^2+4k\)
=4k
Để phương trình có nghiệm thì \(4k\ge0\)
hay \(k\ge0\)