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Hình như đề bài sai đó bạn. \(x^2+y^2+z^2\)=0 nê x=y=z=0, vì sao lại có 2(x+y+z+3/2)=0 được
Cô ơi em có cách khác ạ :)
\(\frac{x^2+y^2+z^2}{a^2+b^2+c^2}=\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}+\frac{z^2}{c^2}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow x^2\left(\frac{1}{a^2}-\frac{1}{a^2+b^2+c^2}\right)+y^2\left(\frac{1}{b^2}-\frac{1}{a^2+b^2+c^2}\right)+z^2\left(\frac{1}{c^2}-\frac{1}{a^2+b^2+c^2}\right)=0\)
Dấu "=" xảy ra tại x=y=z=0
Khi đó T=0
Ta có:
\(\frac{x^2+y^2+z^2}{a^2+b^2+c^2}=\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}+\frac{z^2}{c^2}\)
<=> \(\left(a^2+b^2+c^2\right)\)\(\frac{x^2+y^2+z^2}{a^2+b^2+c^2}=\left(a^2+b^2+c^2\right)\left(\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}+\frac{z^2}{c^2}\right)\)
<=> \(x^2+y^2+z^2=\left(a^2+b^2+c^2\right)\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\left(a^2+b^2+c^2\right)\frac{y^2}{b^2}+\left(a^2+b^2+c^2\right)\frac{z^2}{c^2}\)
<=> \(\frac{\left(b^2+c^2\right)}{a^2}x^2+\frac{\left(a^2+c^2\right)}{b^2}y^2+\frac{\left(a^2+b^2\right)}{c^2}z^2=0\)
vì a, b , c khác 0 nên \(\frac{\left(b^2+c^2\right)}{a^2};\frac{\left(c^2+a^2\right)}{b^2};\frac{\left(b^2+a^2\right)}{c^2}\ne0\)
\(\frac{\left(b^2+c^2\right)}{a^2}x^2\ge0;\frac{\left(a^2+c^2\right)}{b^2}y^2\ge0;\frac{\left(a^2+b^2\right)}{c^2}z^2\ge0\)với mọi x, y, z
=> \(\frac{\left(b^2+c^2\right)}{a^2}x^2+\frac{\left(a^2+c^2\right)}{b^2}y^2+\frac{\left(a^2+b^2\right)}{c^2}z^2\ge0\)với mọi x; y; z
Do đó: \(\frac{\left(b^2+c^2\right)}{a^2}x^2+\frac{\left(a^2+c^2\right)}{b^2}y^2+\frac{\left(a^2+b^2\right)}{c^2}z^2=0\)
=> x = y = z = 0
Vậy T = 0
Ta có: \(x+y+z=\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{z}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow x+y+z=\frac{yz}{xyz}+\frac{xz}{xyz}+\frac{yz}{xyz}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow x+y+z=yz+xz+yz\)
Ta có: \(\left(x-1\right)\left(y-1\right)\left(z-1\right)\)
\(=\left(xy-x-y+1\right)\left(z-1\right)\)
\(=xyz-xy-xz+x-yz+y+z-1\)
\(=\left(xyz-1\right)+\left(x+y+z\right)-\left(xy+yz+xz\right)\)
\(=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(x-1\right)\left(y-1\right)\left(z-1\right)=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow x=y=z=1\)
Vậy: \(P=\left(x^{19}-1\right)\left(y^5-1\right)\left(z^{2016}-1\right)\)
\(=\left(1^{19}-1\right)\left(1^5-1\right)\left(1^{2016}-1\right)\)
\(=0\)
Thay \(2016=xyz\)vào biểu thức ta được
\(A=\frac{x^2yz}{xy+x^2yz+xyz}+\frac{y}{yz+y+xyz}+\frac{z}{xz+z+1}\)
\(=\frac{x^2yz}{xy\left(1+xz+z\right)}+\frac{y}{y\left(z+1+xz\right)}+\frac{z}{xz+z+1}\)
\(=\frac{xz}{xz+z+1}+\frac{1}{xz+z+1}+\frac{z}{xz+z+1}=\frac{xz+z+1}{xz+z+1}=1\)
Vậy \(A=1\)
Vì \(xyz=2016\)
\(\Rightarrow A=\frac{2016x}{xy+2016x+2016}+\frac{y}{yz+y+2016}+\frac{z}{xz+z+1}\)
\(=\frac{xyz.x}{xy+xyz.x+xyz}+\frac{y}{yz+y+xyz}+\frac{z}{xz+z+1}\)
\(=\frac{x^2yz}{xy+x^2yz+xyz}+\frac{y}{y\left(z+1+xz\right)}+\frac{z}{xz+z+1}\)
\(=\frac{x^2yz}{xy\left(1+xz+z\right)}+\frac{1}{xz+z+1}+\frac{z}{xz+z+1}\)
\(=\frac{xz}{xz+z+1}+\frac{1}{xz+z+1}+\frac{z}{xz+z+1}\)
\(=\frac{xz+1+z}{xz+z+1}=1\)